I’ve never understood the feminists saying that women are “oppressed” and “miserable” because they can’t do the things men do. Many of the things they couldn’t do were purely political and business-like, like working and voting. Now, I’m not saying a woman is incapable of these things, but some polls I’ve seen have shown that women aren’t any happier doing these things.
Anyway, to the original question- I’m going to show you an example of what I mean-
y = 3 + 7*5 + 12
x = 8 + 24 + 3*6
Now, at a glance, do the two equations look anything alike? Of course not. However, if you work it out, you get x = y.
In the past, sure… Women didn’t get to vote, they couldn’t work for income, they couldn’t own property (except in certain circumstances where it was necessary), ect. However, were they REALLY disadvantaged?
Women were treated with FAR more respect and kindness than men. If a man was unable to marry, he was out working on his own. If a woman was unable to marry, she had every right to stay at her father’s house until she did find somebody. Before that, women had arranged marriages so they wouldn’t even have to worry about support!
The women did NOT work outside the home. I’ve seen people say “The industrial era caused men to think themselves superior to women, because they were out working and the women weren’t working anymore.” Now, did women really work (for profit) before the industrial era? No.
Now, what feminism is trying to do, is change the equations. They want something more like this (y is the female)-
y = 3 + 8 + 7*5 + 3*12
x = 8 + 24 + 3*6
They want to add on male bits to the female section to make it “equal,” but in reality it just screws up everything. Unless you do everything JUST right to those equations, you can’t have them different than their original values AND equal.
Any comments? I’m sure I have more to say, I just can’t make it all flow too great lol.
